Question 1
Two lenders advance similar sums to the same borrower within a few months of one another. Under the first arrangement the lender, a bank, takes a mortgage over the borrower's flat which is duly registered against the title. Under the second, a finance company simply advances the money against the borrower's signature on a promissory note and takes nothing at all by way of security, having been satisfied by his income and his employment record. The borrower has now defaulted on both, and each lender is considering what it can do.
Consider the following statements.
- (i) The second lender may realise the flat on default.
- (ii) The second lender has a claim against the borrower personally.
- (iii) The first lender may realise the flat on default.
- (iv) The first lender has an interest in the flat.
Show the answer and full explanation
Answer: D
The rule. A secured lender has an interest in the property and may realise it. An unsecured lender has a personal claim only.
Why D is correct. (ii), (iii) and (iv) hold. (i) is false.
The other options.
- B and A carry the false (i).
- C drops the correct (iv).
Exam note. Third appearance of this distinction, now framed as what each lender can *do*.
A secured lender has an interest in the property and may realise it →