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Free RES practice paper — 20 questions with full explanations

A complete half-paper from our Paper 1 bank, free and open on this page — no sign-up, nothing hidden. 16 Section A questions and a 4-question Section B case study, each with the rule, why the keyed answer is right, and why every wrong option is wrong.

Paper 1 · Section A & B20 questionsNo account needed

How to use it

Work through the questions first with the explanations collapsed — give yourself about 40 minutes, which is the real paper's pace of just under two minutes per question. Then open each explanation, including the ones you got right, because a correct guess and a correct answer look identical on a score and completely different in the exam hall.

The rule being tested is never named in the stem. That is deliberate — it is how the actual RES paper works, and it is the main reason candidates who have memorised the content still fail the application questions.

See the full papers

Section A — multiple choice

One mark each. Choose the single best answer.

Question 1#

Two agreements are challenged. The first was signed by a person who had been certified as lacking the mental capacity to manage his affairs. The second was signed by a person who was induced to sign by a false statement of fact made innocently by the other party.

Consider the following statements.

  1. (i) The first agreement is void.
  2. (ii) The second is voidable.
  3. (iii) The second may be set aside at the election of the party misled.
  4. (iv) Both agreements are void from the outset.
  1. A. (i), (iii) and (iv)
  2. B. (i), (ii) and (iii)
  3. C. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  4. D. (i), (ii) and (iv)
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: B

The rule. Incapacity renders an agreement void. An innocent misrepresentation renders it voidable, and the party misled may elect to set it aside.

Why B is correct. (i), (ii) and (iii) hold. (iv) is false — the second is voidable, not void.

The other options.

  • A and D carry the false (iv).
  • C drops the correct (i).

Exam note. Two agreements, two different rungs of the ladder. The question is testing whether you can hold both at once.

Question 2#

Mrs Tan placed an advertisement for her condominium unit on 15 April stating that she would sell it at $800,000. On 23 April, Mr Lee wrote to Mrs Tan offering to buy it for $790,000. Mrs Tan did not reply until 2 May when she sent a counter-offer to sell the unit at $810,000. Subsequently, on 5 May, Mr Lee wrote back and offered to purchase the condominium unit for $805,000.

  1. A. Mr Lee's offer of $790,000 was a fresh offer.
  2. B. Mrs Tan's counter-offer of $810,000 revived the original offer.
  3. C. Mr Lee's subsequent offer of $805,000 accepted Mrs Tan's counter-offer.
  4. D. The advertisement on 15 April was an offer.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: A

The rule. A counter-offer destroys the original offer, which cannot revive. A subsequent proposal at the original figure is a fresh offer.

Why A is correct. Mr Lee's initial offer of $790,000 was a new offer because it did not match Mrs Tan's advertised price and thus destroyed any previous standing offer. Subsequent offers are treated independently unless they explicitly revive an earlier offer that has since lapsed.

The other options.

  • B is incorrect as the counter-offer by Mrs Tan effectively terminated Mr Lee's initial offer, making it impossible to revive the original position.
  • C is false because Mr Lee’s subsequent offer of $805,000 does not constitute an acceptance of Mrs Tan’s counter-offer; instead, it is a new offer.
  • D is incorrect as advertisements are generally treated as invitations to treat and do not create binding offers until there is an actionable proposal.

Question 3#

Mr Ho decides to transfer a terrace house to his grandson for nothing, as an outright gift, and instructs his lawyer to prepare the papers. The lawyer mentions that duty will still fall due on the transfer. The grandson, who had assumed a gift costs nothing, offers to pay a token $1 "so that there is consideration and no duty to worry about."

Which statement is correct?

  1. A. Duty is assessed on the $1, which as a genuine payment makes the transfer a sale for value.
  2. B. Duty is assessed on the house's market value, and the token $1 would defeat the gift, not the duty.
  3. C. As a gift made for no payment at all, the transfer of the house attracts no duty whatsoever.
  4. D. Duty is assessed on market value, but the $1 preserves the gift and removes the duty to pay.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: B

The rule. A gift is a voluntary transfer with no consideration; even $1 of consideration destroys its character as a gift. Duty on the transfer is assessed on the market value of the property, not on any token sum, and it is payable whether or not the transfer is a gift.

Why B is correct. Duty is charged on the house's market value. Handing over $1 would not remove the duty; it would only turn the gift into a transaction for value, defeating the very thing the grandson was trying to preserve.

The other options.

  • A assesses duty on the $1. The base is market value, not the token consideration.
  • C treats a gift as duty-free. Duty is payable on the market value of a gifted property.
  • D claims the $1 removes the duty while keeping the gift — wrong on both counts.

Exam note. Duty follows market value regardless of a nominal price, and $1 does not save it — it merely destroys the gift.

Question 4#

Mrs. Tan, an elderly client with known cognitive impairments but no physical disabilities, is interested in buying a condominium unit. She has expressed her desire to finalize the purchase quickly due to emotional attachment and familial pressure from her daughter who believes it's too expensive. The real estate agent, Mr. Lee, realizes that Mrs. Tan's decision-making capacity might be compromised by these factors.

  1. A. Mr. Lee should proceed with the transaction as quickly as possible to meet his client’s emotional needs and familial pressures.
  2. B. Mr. Lee should inform Mrs. Tan’s daughter about her cognitive impairments and involve her in the decision-making process.
  3. C. Mr. Lee should recommend that Mrs. Tan seek independent legal advice before proceeding with any major transaction decisions.
  4. D. Mr. Lee is not required to take additional steps beyond what he would for a client without known vulnerabilities.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: C

The rule. In situations where clients have cognitive impairments or other vulnerabilities, real estate agents are expected to exercise greater care and diligence over the transaction and recommend seeking independent legal advice before proceeding with major decisions.

Why C is correct. Mr. Lee should ensure Mrs. Tan takes independent legal advice due to her known cognitive impairments, which makes it necessary for him to take additional steps beyond what he would do in a standard case.

The other options.

  • A suggests rushing the transaction despite potential risks to Mrs. Tan’s best interests.
  • B involves Mrs. Tan's daughter without considering whether involving her is appropriate or helpful given the client's vulnerabilities.
  • D minimizes the agent's responsibilities, ignoring the need for greater care and diligence when dealing with vulnerable clients.

Exam note. The correct answer requires applying the rule to the specific scenario rather than making assumptions about standard procedures.

Question 5#

A landlord agrees a two-year lease of a shop to begin on 1 March, and, as a goodwill gesture, hands the tenant the keys a month early so that the tenant can fit out the premises rent-free before trading starts. A dispute arises over what kind of arrangement governs that early month, the tenant treating it as part of his two years and the landlord insisting it was something separate that ended when the term began. The rent for the two years proper is not in dispute; the argument is only about the status of that rent-free month before the term started.

Which statement is correct?

  1. A. The early month is a periodic tenancy, renewing month to month until either party ends it.
  2. B. The early month is part of the two-year fixed term, which therefore began a month sooner.
  3. C. The early month is a licence only, the tenant having no interest until 1 March.
  4. D. The early month is a tenancy at will, ending when the fixed term begins on 1 March.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: D

The rule. Where a landlord hands over possession before the fixed term begins — for example, a rent-free fitting-out month — the early period is a tenancy at will, which ends when the fixed term starts. A tenancy at will need not be rent-free; it is defined by having no certain term.

Why D is correct. The early month, granted before the 1 March start, is a tenancy at will that ends when the fixed term begins. It is not part of the two-year term, nor a mere licence.

The other options.

  • B folds the month into the fixed term. The fixed term begins on 1 March, as agreed.
  • C calls it a licence. The tenant has possession of the premises; it is a tenancy at will.
  • A makes it a periodic tenancy. It does not roll on; it ends when the fixed term starts.

Exam note. Possession before the term starts is a tenancy at will, ending when the term begins. Rent-free does not make it a licence.

Question 6#

A developer owns a shop and is turning over three things he might do with it: change it to a restaurant, change it to another kind of shop, or change it to a funeral parlour. He wants to know, for each, whether he would need the planning authority's approval before he could go ahead, and his agent works through them with him.

Consider the following statements.

  1. (i) Changing his shop to a restaurant, a different use class, needs approval.
  2. (ii) Changing his shop to a funeral parlour, a use in no class at all, needs approval.
  3. (iii) Changing his shop to another shop, within the same class, needs no approval absent special conditions.
  4. (iv) The funeral parlour he has in mind falls within none of the use classes.
  1. A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
  2. B. (i), (iii) and (iv)
  3. C. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
  4. D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: D

The rule. Approval is needed to change from one use class to another, and between a use class and an unclassified use. No approval is needed to change within the same use class, absent special conditions. A funeral parlour is an unclassified use.

Why D is correct. Applied to his shop, all four hold: the restaurant is a different class, the funeral parlour is an unclassified use, another shop stays within the same class, and the funeral parlour falls within none of the classes.

The other options.

  • A, B and C each drop one true statement, most temptingly the within-class exemption or the funeral-parlour example.

Exam note. Crossing a class boundary needs approval; staying within a class does not. The funeral parlour is the stock example of a use that fits no class at all.

Question 7#

A developer looking at a plot zoned "Residential with Commercial at 1st storey" has assumed that, since both uses are permitted on the plot, he is free to arrange them however he likes — and in particular that he could put the homes on the ground floor, where they would open onto a garden, and the shops on the floors above. He asks his consultant whether the zoning allows him to arrange the two uses that way.

Which statement is correct?

  1. A. He may reverse it, the zoning permitting the two uses in any arrangement.
  2. B. He may reverse it only where the plot lies outside the Central Area of the city.
  3. C. He may not reverse it; commercial belongs on the first storey, homes above.
  4. D. He may reverse it provided the commercial floor area stays below a set share.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: C

The rule. In "Residential with Commercial at 1st storey", the commercial use belongs on the first storey with homes above. The arrangement may not be reversed.

Why C is correct. He may not reverse it; commercial goes on the first storey, homes above.

The other options.

  • A allows any arrangement.
  • B and D allow a reversal on a location or a floor-area condition the zoning does not carry.

Exam note. The zoning fixes the arrangement: shops at street level, homes above. It is not a free mix of the two uses.

Question 8#

On 12 April, Mr Tan placed an advertisement in a local newspaper offering a two-bedroom apartment at $750,000. On 13 April, Ms Lee responded with a letter expressing her acceptance of the advertised terms and requesting the necessary paperwork to proceed. However, on 14 April, Mr Tan updated his advertisement to reflect a new price of $800,000 for all remaining units. Which statement is correct?

  1. A. Ms Lee's acceptance of the original advertised terms was not an offer since the position had changed by then.
  2. B. Mr Tan's updated advertisement on 14 April did not affect Ms Lee's previous acceptance as it was still valid.
  3. C. The advertisement on 12 April constituted a standing offer that bound Mr Tan to the original price when accepted.
  4. D. Ms Lee's letter of 13 April constitutes an offer, and Mr Tan is free to accept or reject this offer.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: D

The rule. An advertisement in a newspaper inviting offers is an invitation to treat rather than a binding offer. Once the advertiser updates their terms, any previous responses are no longer valid unless explicitly accepted by the advertiser.

Why D is correct. Ms Lee's letter of 13 April constitutes an offer based on the original advertised price. Mr Tan remains free to accept or reject this offer, even after updating his advertisement to a new price.

The other options.

  • A incorrectly suggests that Ms Lee’s acceptance was not an offer because her acceptance does constitute an offer but is no longer valid due to the updated terms.
  • B implies that Ms Lee's previous acceptance remains valid despite the update, which it does not since Mr Tan can now accept or reject this offer as he chooses based on his new price listing.
  • C misunderstands that an advertisement cannot be a standing offer binding the advertiser to specific terms indefinitely.

Exam note. An advertisement is always an invitation to treat; understand who makes offers and when they remain valid.

Question 9#

Two neighbouring houses in the same road carry different titles. Number 14 is held under an unqualified freehold grant made in 1889. Number 16 is held under an estate in perpetuity. The owner of number 16, who is refinancing and has been reading his papers properly for the first time, has been assured by a friend at the golf club that the two titles are identical in every respect that matters — that in each case the owner may dig for whatever lies beneath his land, may refuse entry to anybody at all including a government workman come to repair a sewer running beneath the boundary, and owes no duty to anyone about the boundary markers.

Which statement is correct?

  1. A. Both are freehold in duration, and neither carries conditions of that kind.
  2. B. Both are freehold in duration, and both carry conditions of that kind.
  3. C. Both are freehold in duration; number 16 alone carries such conditions.
  4. D. Number 16 alone is freehold in duration, and it alone carries such conditions.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: C

The rule. An estate in fee simple and an estate in perpetuity are both freehold in duration. They differ in what comes attached: an estate in perpetuity is subject to terms implied by the legislation, among them the State's rights in respect of oil and other deposits, rights of way for neighbours with no other access, the duty to maintain boundary marks, and free access at all times for officers and workmen laying or repairing pipes and sewers.

Why C is correct. Both are freehold in duration; only number 16 carries the implied conditions.

The other options.

  • A and B treat the two titles as identical, one by denying the conditions and the other by extending them to both.
  • D gets the conditions right and then wrongly denies that an estate in perpetuity is freehold in duration, which is the very thing that makes it worth having.

Exam note. Two variables — duration and conditions — permuted across four options. Fix duration first, since both titles share it, and only two options survive.

Question 10#

On the sale of a tenanted property, the outgoing landlord holds the tenant's security deposit and wants to hand it over to the incoming landlord as part of the deal, so that the new landlord holds it for the rest of the term. The tenant, who paid the deposit at the start and expects it back at the end, has not been consulted, and the agent is asked whether the two landlords can simply deal with it between themselves without reference to him.

Which statement is correct?

  1. A. The deposit may be transferred to the new landlord, but the tenant's consent is required for it.
  2. B. The deposit may be passed over freely between the landlords, being the landlord's to hold.
  3. C. The deposit must be returned to the tenant on the sale and a fresh deposit taken by the buyer.
  4. D. The deposit stays with the outgoing landlord, who remains answerable for it after the sale.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: A

The rule. The tenant's security deposit may be transferred from the outgoing landlord to the incoming landlord on a sale, but the transfer requires the tenant's consent — it is, after all, the tenant's money.

Why A is correct. The deposit can be handed over to the new landlord, but only with the tenant's consent; the two landlords cannot simply deal with it between themselves.

The other options.

  • B passes it freely between the landlords. The tenant's consent is needed.
  • C requires a refund and a fresh deposit. Transfer with consent is the normal course.
  • D leaves it with the outgoing landlord. It may be transferred, with consent.

Exam note. Transferring the deposit on a sale needs the tenant's consent. It is the tenant's money, not the landlords' to move at will.

Question 11#

Two errors surface on the same afternoon. In the first, a clerk has typed the price on an option as "$1,900" where both parties plainly meant $1.9 million, and only the buyer has noticed. In the second, both parties have signed an option recording the unit as #09-12 when both had walked through, and agreed on, #09-21.

Consider the following statements.

  1. (i) The price error goes to the substance of what was agreed.
  2. (ii) The unit-number error is shared by both parties and may be put right by amending the document.
  3. (iii) Both errors leave their agreements merely unenforceable until stamped.
  4. (iv) A minor typographical slip in a party's name would not have the same effect as the price error.
  1. A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
  2. B. (ii) and (iii)
  3. C. (i), (iii) and (iv)
  4. D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: A

The rule. A mistake going to the substance of the bargain renders an agreement void. A mistake shared by both parties about how the agreement is recorded may be corrected by amending the document. Neither is a stamping question.

Why A is correct. (i), (ii) and (iv) hold. (iii) is false — these are not stamping defects.

The other options.

  • B and D carry the false (iii).
  • C drops the correct (ii), the common-mistake limb.

Exam note. Distinguish a defect in the *bargain* from a defect in the *record of* the bargain. The first may destroy it; the second is usually fixable.

Question 12#

Ms Tan rents a commercial shop from Mr Lee under a tenancy agreement that will expire in nine months. She has stopped paying rent and shows no intention of leaving. Mr Lee wants to understand his legal remedies against Ms Tan, including any cost-effective resolution options available for this short-term dispute.

  1. A. Mr Lee may claim damages for unpaid rent, seek specific performance to compel Ms Tan's compliance with the lease terms, and take the case to the Small Claims Tribunal because it involves a residential flat within two years of its expiry.
  2. B. Mr Lee may claim damages for unpaid rent, seek specific performance to compel Ms Tan's compliance with the lease terms, and obtain an injunction if necessary.
  3. C. Mr Lee can only claim damages for unpaid rent but cannot seek specific performance or take the case to the Small Claims Tribunal as it does not involve a residential flat within two years of its expiry.
  4. D. Mr Lee may seek specific performance and an injunction, but he cannot claim damages for unpaid rent because Ms Tan's tenancy is commercial and involves a shop.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: B

The rule. The implied remedies for breach of a lease include claims for damages, specific performance to compel the tenant’s compliance with the lease terms, and an injunction if necessary. A residential lease dispute where the term does not exceed two years may be taken to the Small Claims Tribunal.

Why B is correct. Mr Lee can claim damages for unpaid rent, seek specific performance to compel Ms Tan's compliance with the lease terms, and obtain an injunction if necessary. (i), (ii) and (iii) are all remedies available under a commercial tenancy agreement.

The other options.

  • A incorrectly states that it involves a residential flat within two years of its expiry; this is not applicable to the scenario as Ms Tan rents a commercial shop.
  • C omits specific performance and injunction, which are remedies available in addition to claiming damages for unpaid rent.
  • D incorrectly suggests he cannot claim damages for unpaid rent because Ms Tan’s tenancy is commercial; he can indeed claim damages as well as seek specific performance and an injunction.

Question 13#

Mr. Tan sells his flat and provides an inventory list with several items listed for inclusion in the sale. One of these is a wall-mounted air conditioner that he had installed during his occupancy under a contract that specifies it remains the property of the manufacturer until fully paid.

  1. A. The air conditioner should be removed from the list as Mr. Tan does not yet own it outright.
  2. B. The air conditioner can remain on the list since possession is enough to transfer ownership with the property.
  3. C. Mr. Tan must obtain written consent from the manufacturer for the buyer to take over the remaining instalments.
  4. D. Only if the manufacturer objects in writing should Mr. Tan remove the air conditioner from the inventory.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: A

The rule. An item on hire purchase is not fully owned by the seller — the finance company may repossess it — so it cannot be sold with the property and should not go on the inventory list.

Why A is correct. It should be removed from the list as Mr. Tan does not yet own it outright.

The other options.

  • B treats possession as ownership, disregarding the hire purchase status of the air conditioner.
  • C and D attempt to save the listing with additional agreements or objections, but the seller cannot pass an item he does not fully own regardless of these arrangements.

Exam note. Verify that listed items are fully paid for; what the seller does not own outright should not be included in the sale inventory.

Question 14#

A man comes to a salesperson wishing to sell his elderly father's flat. He explains that his father has lost his mental capacity, that he is the donee named under his father's lasting power of attorney, and that he wants the flat marketed at once so the proceeds can meet the cost of nursing care. The salesperson has not handled a sale under a lasting power of attorney before, and knows there are steps she must take before she can act on the son's instructions, and that the order in which she takes them matters.

Consider the following statements.

  1. (i) The agent should obtain the original lasting power of attorney or a certified copy.
  2. (ii) The agent may act on the donee's word alone once the document is produced.
  3. (iii) The agent should obtain a doctor's report that the donor has lost mental capacity.
  4. (iv) The agent should have a lawyer confirm it is valid and has not been revoked.
  1. A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  2. B. (i), (iii) and (iv)
  3. C. (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
  4. D. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: D

The rule. Before acting for a donee, the agent must, in order: obtain the original lasting power of attorney or a certified copy; have a lawyer confirm it is valid and unrevoked; and obtain a doctor's report that the donor has lost capacity. Only then may he act.

Why D is correct. (i), (iii) and (iv) are the three steps; (ii) — acting on the donee's word alone — is exactly what the steps rule out.

The other options.

  • B and A carry the false (ii).
  • C drops the true (i).

Exam note. Three steps, and all three are required. The document alone is not enough; it must be confirmed valid and the capacity loss certified.

Question 15#

Mrs Tan has owned an apartment in Singapore for thirty years under a lease from a private freeholder. She intends to sell and asks her real estate agent whether the buyer will perceive her property as leasehold or effectively freehold due to its long term.

  1. A. The property is considered freehold because it has been held for thirty years.
  2. B. The property is still leasehold, regardless of the length and lessor's identity.
  3. C. The property will be treated as effectively freehold due to its long remaining term.
  4. D. The property is leasehold but may become freehold if Mrs Tan extends the term.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: B

The rule. Any lease, regardless of length or lessor identity, remains a leasehold.

Why B is correct. The property is still classified as leasehold despite its long-term and private freeholder origin.

The other options.

  • A misinterprets the duration as converting it to freehold.
  • C incorrectly assumes 999 years or more makes it effectively freehold.
  • D suggests that extending the term could change its status, which is incorrect.

Question 16#

Mr Tan signed an estate agency agreement in April to sell his condominium unit through Real Estate Solutions Pte Ltd, a licensed estate agent firm. Ms Lee, a salesperson from Real Estate Solutions who was assigned to Mr Tan's property, completed all the necessary marketing and negotiations for the sale. In June, Mr Tan received an offer on his property but decided to terminate the agreement with Real Estate Solutions before accepting any offers.

  1. A. Mr Tan is not entitled to any compensation from Real Estate Solutions since the salesperson Ms Lee was the only party actively involved in marketing and negotiations.
  2. B. Real Estate Solutions must provide a full refund of all fees collected from Mr Tan, as they did not secure a sale before termination.
  3. C. The estate agency agreement operates between Real Estate Solutions Pte Ltd and Mr Tan; Ms Lee is not a party to it in her individual capacity.
  4. D. Mr Tan can charge the salesperson Ms Lee for her services rendered towards selling his property.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: C

The rule. The estate agency agreement operates between the estate agent — the licensed firm — and the client. The salesperson signs for the firm but is not a party in their own right.

Why C is correct. Real Estate Solutions Pte Ltd (the licensed firm) and Mr Tan are the parties to the agreement, while Ms Lee is merely acting on behalf of the firm.

The other options.

  • A incorrectly suggests that the salesperson's involvement alone makes her a party to the agreement.
  • B proposes an incorrect remedy for terminating the agency relationship; there is no automatic refund required if no sale was secured.
  • D incorrectly implies that Mr Tan can charge Ms Lee, who acts on behalf of Real Estate Solutions Pte Ltd, rather than through the licensed firm itself.

Exam note. Only the licensed estate agent firm may hold the appointment with the client, and this is why only the firm can be a party to the agreement.

Section B — case study

Two marks each. Read the scenario once in full, then answer. Section B is where most marks are lost: the facts are dense and several of them are there to be ruled out.

Case study 1 — The Jalan Kelabu access strip

Jalan Kelabu is a short residential road off a main carriageway. In 1984 a single owner, Mr Ang, held one large plot fronting it. He obtained subdivision approval and submitted a plan dividing the plot into two lots. Lot 118 takes the whole road frontage. Lot 119 sits directly behind it and has no frontage of any kind. The submitted plan shows a strip four metres wide running along the northern edge of lot 118, from the road to the boundary of lot 119, marked as set apart for access and for a surface drain.

Mr Ang sold lot 119 in 1985 to a Mr Gopal and kept lot 118 for himself, which he later sold on. Neither title carries any registered memorial about the strip. Lot 118 is held on a State lease of ninety-nine years commencing 1 February 1985; lot 119 is held under an estate in perpetuity. The State title for lot 118 says nothing at all about depth.

Madam Rosnah bought lot 118 in 2016 and lives there with her mother. She mortgaged it to a bank in 2019; the mortgage deed is in ordinary form and says nothing about letting. In January 2024, without telling the bank, she granted a four-year tenancy of the upper floor to a couple, at a rent below the market figure in exchange for a lump sum they paid her at signing.

Mr Gopal is now eighty-one. Between 2013 and 2022 he did not use the strip at all: he had cut a rear gate through his back fence onto an adjoining park connector, and used that instead. In 2022 the authorities closed the connector for works, he bricked up the rear gate, and he has used the strip daily ever since. He has never lodged anything at the registry.

Madam Rosnah has planted a hedge along the strip which has grown out to narrow the usable width to about two and a half metres, and a pothole has opened where the drain runs. In March 2026 Mr Gopal's daughter-in-law caught her foot in the pothole while walking to his house and broke her wrist.

Separately, a neighbour from two doors away, Mr Segaran, has for nineteen years walked across the same strip each morning as a short cut to the bus stop. Nothing was ever agreed with anyone. Madam Rosnah has recently told him to stop.

Madam Rosnah's contractor has begun excavating for a basement. A dispute has arisen with the authorities over how far down her title reaches, and she maintains that because her State title specifies nothing, her ownership runs indefinitely downwards.

Mr Gopal has now offered to buy lot 118 from Madam Rosnah at a fair price, so that his family may hold both lots. Madam Rosnah is willing in principle. The bank's mortgage over lot 118 remains outstanding and would not be discharged before the transfer he proposes.

A salesperson engaged to advise has pulled the cadastral map. It shows lot 118 and lot 119 as separate parcels with the strip lying wholly within lot 118. No public road is shown over the strip.

Question 17#

On the plan submitted in 1984 and the sale that followed, which statement is correct?

  1. A. Mr Ang reserved the right of way for lot 119 when he sold it.
  2. B. Mr Ang granted the right of way to lot 119 when he sold it.
  3. C. No right of way arose, nothing having been registered on either title.
  4. D. A right of way arose in favour of lot 118, which fronts the road.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: B

The rule. Where an owner sells the parcel that needs the right and keeps the parcel over which it runs, the easement is granted to the buyer. Where he sells the burdened parcel and keeps the benefited one, it is reserved for himself.

Why B is correct. Mr Ang sold lot 119, which has no frontage and needs the strip, and kept lot 118, over which the strip runs. The right therefore went out with the parcel he sold: a grant.

The other options.

  • A transposes grant and reservation.
  • C treats the absence of a registered memorial as fatal, which the next question deals with.
  • D puts the benefit on the lot that already has the whole road frontage and needs nothing.

Exam note. Identify which parcel is useless without the right. That is the dominant tenement, and the label follows from whether the seller kept it or sold it.

Question 18#

Madam Rosnah argues that because no memorial appears on her title, the strip is hers to use as she pleases.

Consider the following statements.

  1. (i) Approval of the 1984 subdivision was obtained.
  2. (ii) The submitted plan showed the strip set apart for access and a drain.
  3. (iii) Rights of way and drainage over that strip are implied for each lot.
  4. (iv) Such rights bind only once a memorial is entered on the folios.
  1. A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  2. B. (ii) and (iv)
  3. C. (i), (iii) and (iv) only
  4. D. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: D

The rule. Where a subdivision has been approved and its plan submitted showing land set apart for access and drainage, easements of way and drainage over that land are implied for each lot, and they are enforceable without any memorial or notification on the folios.

Why D is correct. (i), (ii) and (iii) are right, and each of the first two is stated in the narrative. (iv) is false: these implied rights bind without any entry on the folios, which is precisely why Madam Rosnah's clean title tells her nothing.

The other options.

  • A, B and C all carry the false (iv), which restates the general rule for registered land and then applies it to one of the exceptions to it. B also drops (i).

Exam note. Two facts in the narrative make this work and they sit ten lines apart: subdivision approval was obtained, and the plan showed the strip set apart. Neither is repeated.

Question 19#

Mr Gopal's nine years of non-use, followed by his return to the strip in 2022, is raised by Madam Rosnah as ending his right.

Which statement is correct?

  1. A. Non-use alone does not end it; it is ended by union, by release, or by the court.
  2. B. The right ended automatically after a fixed period of non-use.
  3. C. The right ended when he bricked up his rear gate, showing he had chosen another route.
  4. D. The right ended when he cut the rear gate, and revived when he bricked it up.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: A

The rule. An easement over registered land is extinguished by union of tenements, by release, or by order of the court. Non-use, however prolonged, is not by itself a mode of extinguishment.

Why A is correct. Nine years of using the rear gate ended nothing. The right survived and Mr Gopal's return to the strip in 2022 needed no revival.

The other options.

  • B applies a fixed abandonment period, which is the most widely believed wrong answer in this topic.
  • C treats the bricking-up of the rear gate as an election, when the gate was never the easement.
  • D has the two events the right way round chronologically and the wrong way round legally.

Exam note. Nine years, a rear gate, a closure and a bricking-up are all in the narrative to build a story of abandonment. Ask instead which of the three recognised modes has occurred, and the answer is none of them.

Question 20#

The hedge and the pothole have brought matters to a head, and each owner has taken advice about who has to deal with them and who has to pay.

Which statement is correct?

  1. A. Mr Gopal may not obstruct the way, and he alone bears the cost of upkeep.
  2. B. Madam Rosnah may not obstruct the way, and she alone bears the cost of upkeep.
  3. C. Madam Rosnah may not obstruct the way, and the cost of upkeep is shared.
  4. D. Mr Gopal may not obstruct the way, and the cost of upkeep is shared.
Show the answer and full explanation

Answer: C

The rule. Two different things are going on and they fall differently. The owner of the burdened land may not obstruct the way — that duty is hers alone, and the hedge is an obstruction. But where easements are implied on an approved subdivision, a covenant to contribute to the cost of maintenance or repair is implied with them, binding everyone who enjoys the benefit and running to successors in title.

Why C is correct. The hedge is Madam Rosnah's to cut back, because it is her land and she may not narrow the way. The cost of making good the drain and the pothole is shared, because Mr Gopal enjoys the benefit and the implied covenant reaches him.

The other options.

  • B is the intuitive answer and the one the deck-level version of this rule produces: her land, her problem, all of it. It is right about obstruction and wrong about cost.
  • A and D both put the duty not to obstruct on the wrong party — Mr Gopal cannot obstruct a way across land that is not his.

Exam note. Split the question in two before answering. "Who must not block it" and "who pays to keep it up" have different answers, and an option that gets one right is designed to carry you past the other.

Finished the paper?

This half-paper is one of ten full 80-question papers we publish across Paper 1 and Paper 2, each written to the same standard: every figure checked against the current IRAS, CEA, HDB, URA and SLA position, and every option explained rather than merely keyed.

Independent study material. Not affiliated with or endorsed by the Council for Estate Agencies. No pass guarantee — for study use only.